Originally Posted by Gearhead_318
I was talken' at RayinNorCal, your fine Blaen.
Yeah, I was getting at what he was going to get into with you Gearhead.
He has "support" for his claims, but they come due to inaccuracy in his chosen translation.
Let me give an example, and I'm going to give away one of the traps I set for RayinNorCal in doing this.
The Hebrew bible had nothing on "Virgin" birth, it was simply unmarried woman and premarital sex. It was very cut and dry, as I elaborated before.
Then the Greeks got ahold of it. They added the "Virgin" birth mythos, which was taken wholesale from the Greek gods. This was explicitly
with the intent to make it easier for the average Greek to understand and relate to. The origins of the "Virgin Mary" come from the ancient Greeks, and if you read a near-verbatim original Hebrew version (Assuming you can read ancient Hebrew or have the cajones to translate it properly...), you are left scratching your head wondering "WTF? Where did the Virgin Mary mythos come from?!?" This is precisely why I linked to an article on the original Hebrew and what it meant.
Then a Church realized "Okay, we can use this for our purposes, let's expand on it!". Give it over a millenium, add a good dose of the KJV and it's future variants, and then we are in a position where Ray was arguing with me previously.