In what little ways does the US resemble Nazi Germany?
I don't think you understood me.
You're right, though - I didn't click your shitty link. I didn't click your link because I don't care what it says, not even slightly. What you completely failed to grasp is that the content of your link is completely irrelevant to my point. So are any actual similarities (or dissimilarities) between modern America and **** Germany, in fact. My point is that anyone who feels the need to utilize a metaphor involving **** Germany in today's world for any reason that doesn't literally involve the mass genocide of millions of humans is an intellectual fraud who is incapable of articulating the points of their argument without the crutch of sensationalist rhetoric.
Get it?
You're right, though - I didn't click your shitty link. I didn't click your link because I don't care what it says, not even slightly. What you completely failed to grasp is that the content of your link is completely irrelevant to my point. So are any actual similarities (or dissimilarities) between modern America and **** Germany, in fact. My point is that anyone who feels the need to utilize a metaphor involving **** Germany in today's world for any reason that doesn't literally involve the mass genocide of millions of humans is an intellectual fraud who is incapable of articulating the points of their argument without the crutch of sensationalist rhetoric.
Get it?
(well said)
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"**** Germany" is such a loaded term and involves so many different things that the author's point is lost. "**** Germany" is best known for the totalitarian dictator and their aggressive foreign policy which involved annexing and invading other nations (for the purpose of conquering) and mass genocide.
When asked about "**** Germany," it being a "police state" is probably low on the list of descriptors for most people.
Besides, there are far, far, far more ways in which the USA is dissimilar to **** Germany or pre-**** Germany. The net result is that any relevant points the author might have made are lost.
Very well articulated.
When asked about "**** Germany," it being a "police state" is probably low on the list of descriptors for most people.
Besides, there are far, far, far more ways in which the USA is dissimilar to **** Germany or pre-**** Germany. The net result is that any relevant points the author might have made are lost.
[...]My point is that anyone who feels the need to utilize a metaphor involving **** Germany in today's world for any reason that doesn't literally involve the mass genocide of millions of humans is an intellectual fraud who is incapable of articulating the points of their argument without the crutch of sensationalist rhetoric.
Get it?
Get it?
Very well articulated.
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It depends, Joe.
Typically, Godwin's law is called when someone tries to make a comparison of someone or something with the ****'s in an unfair or outright stupid way.
I'd say it fits.
Typically, Godwin's law is called when someone tries to make a comparison of someone or something with the ****'s in an unfair or outright stupid way.
I'd say it fits.
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Joined: Sep 2005
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From: Chicago. (The less-murder part.)
Yeah, it's just usually applied to respondents in a thread, not to the OP. Godwin's Law is usually interpreted to mean that once it has been invoked, the thread is "over" and the invokee has "lost."
In this case, the offending post was the very first post. Since that post "ended" the thread, and nullified itself in the process, then there are actually no posts at all in this thread, and thus, this thread does not exist.
It creates a sort of causality loop much like the predestination paradox in time-travel. How could this thread exist if the one post which caused it to begin existing became null as a result of its own content? How can we even be having this conversation?
In this case, the offending post was the very first post. Since that post "ended" the thread, and nullified itself in the process, then there are actually no posts at all in this thread, and thus, this thread does not exist.
It creates a sort of causality loop much like the predestination paradox in time-travel. How could this thread exist if the one post which caused it to begin existing became null as a result of its own content? How can we even be having this conversation?
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Yeah, it's just usually applied to respondents in a thread, not to the OP. Godwin's Law is usually interpreted to mean that once it has been invoked, the thread is "over" and the invokee has "lost."
In this case, the offending post was the very first post. Since that post "ended" the thread, and nullified itself in the process, then there are actually no posts at all in this thread, and thus, this thread does not exist.
It creates a sort of causality loop much like the predestination paradox in time-travel. How could this thread exist if the one post which caused it to begin existing became null as a result of its own content? How can we even be having this conversation?
In this case, the offending post was the very first post. Since that post "ended" the thread, and nullified itself in the process, then there are actually no posts at all in this thread, and thus, this thread does not exist.
It creates a sort of causality loop much like the predestination paradox in time-travel. How could this thread exist if the one post which caused it to begin existing became null as a result of its own content? How can we even be having this conversation?
You are like the ****'s. 'Cause you are just that sharp of a dresser.
There, now does the thread nullification nullify itself?
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